IMMANUEL-

I CRINGE WITH EMBARRASSMENT FOR CHRISTIANS WHEN THEY CALL JESUS IMMANUEL.   TO KNOW A PROPHET IS TRUE HIS PROPHECIES WILL COME TRUE IN HIS LIFETIME UNLESS IT IS ABOUT THE END OF DAYS.  So when in Isaiah 7:13 Why would they be talking about getting a sign right now has something to do with a messiah prophecy.  As we know messianic prophecies are about the end of days and we have been on this planet another 2000 yrs since Jesus so how is he the messiah if the end of days was here.
Isaiah 7:13
Hear ye now, O house of David; (Ahaz is of the house of David) Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you (Ahaz) a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
(the birth - or the name - was to be a sign to Ahaz. This couldn't possibly be the birth of Messiah, since it was hundreds of years later, long after Ahaz had died! A "sign" to a dead man is useless.)
15 Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good. 16 For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings. (those united against Judah) 17 The LORD shall bring upon thee (Ahaz), and upon thy people (Judah),

14. Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.

Also in Christian Bible they changed the hebrew word for young lady to virgin to make it look like
Jesus is the sign but in the hebrew which was written 2000 yrs before Jesus came around it said

The common sense context is clear.  The ONLY way Isaiah 7:14 can be a Messianic verse referring to Yeshua the Messiah is to completely rip it free of the clear context in which it resides.  The ONLY evidence that this is a Messianic prophecy is the evidence supplied by Constantinian Christian tradition and probable scribal manipulation of the Gospels.

WHO IS IMMANUEL - Well no one .   Immanuel means G-d is with us and the birth of Isaiah's son is the sign to the King that G-d is with them (Immanuel)


2.And I took unto me faithful witnesses to record, Uriah the priest, and Zechariah the son of Jeberechiah. 3 And I went unto the prophetess; and she conceived, and bare a son. Then said the LORD to me, Call his name Mahershalalhashbaz. (THIS IS THE FULFILLMENT OF 7:14!
(The use of this term (Immanuel) in 7:14 was part of the sign which was "God with us" during the time to soon come when Judah feels threatened from Assyria. Here the name is applied to Judah to insure that divine protection will be extended to it, which of course, it was at that time.)
There are several unambiguous facts seen in the context of these verses.

 4.For before the child shall have knowledge to cry, My father, and my mother, the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria shall be taken away before the king of Assyria. (repeat of 7:16, further proving the birth of Isaiah's son to be the fulfillment of Is. 7:14!) 5 The LORD spake also unto me again, saying, 6 Forasmuch as this people refuseth the waters of Shiloah that go softly, and rejoice in Rezin and Remaliah's son; 7 Now therefore, behold, the Lord bringeth up upon them the waters of the river, strong and many, even the king of Assyria, and all his glory: and he shall come up over all his channels, and go over all his banks: 8 And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel. 

First, Isaiah is talking to King Ahaz of Judah and tells HIM (Ahaz) that the sign of a birth will be for HIM. This fact alone makes application of Isaiah 7:14 to the birth of Yeshua impossible, since Ahaz was long dead by the time Yeshua was born; thus proving it is not a Messianic prophesy.

The ENTIRE context of these verses refer to the specific issue of the prophecy regarding what will happen to those that were plotting to destroy Judah, of which Ahaz was King.  Even the term Immanuel, "god with us", was to assure Judah, as shown in Is. 8:8, that God would be "with them" during the time of trial that was to come when Syria and Israel strove against Judah and Assyria invaded.

Compare "the young woman is with child" with "the virgin shall be with child" and "you (young woman) shall call his name" with "they shall call His name". These are two different concepts and timeframes.

In the first scenario (almost all Christian translations), the prophet speaks about how, at some point in the future, a girl – that is a virgin, is going to miraculously conceive and give birth to a son and that they (unspecified who exactly) will call his name Immanuel. Supposedly, this was literally fulfilled about 800 years later (from the moment the prophecy was given) through the birth of Jesus.
The second scenario (original Hebrew text), the prophet says that in the moment the prophecy was given, the girl present at the scene (not necessarily a virgin) is already pregnant (she conceived before the prophecy was given) and bears a son who she is to call Immanuel. God, through prophet, gives her the commandment: "You (girl, maiden, young woman) will call your son Immanuel".


Only a few verses after Isaiah 7:14, in verse 8:3, we probably see the birth he was speaking of in Is. 7:14.  It was a birth of a son to Isaiah and his young wife.  Furthermore, even the term "virgin" would apply to the prophetess if the information shown earlier regarding the use of almah to mean "a young woman" (i.e., "sexually mature female of marriageable age, which may of may not be sexually active")

I have often heard it said that if the virgin birth and resurrection as the proof that Jesus was G-d and without them he is a man.  Since a virgin birth is only important in Pagan religions and not at all looked for or accepted by Jews Jesus would have made a great Pagan G-d come to earth because everything about his life is already the story of Mithra, Horus, Krishna and Buddha.  But nothing about him matches the Jews text.

WHO IS THE SUFFERING SERVANT
ISAIAH 53:5
5.But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
ISAIAH 53:12
For he bore the sin of many,

 and made intercession for the transgressors.

BUT THIS IS NOT ABOUT JESUS- IT IS ISRAEL
How do we know this, well it starts the chapter 53 by saying Awake, awake , Zion (Jew people)


Isaiah 53:10 
Yet it was the Lord’s will to crush him and cause him to suffer,
    and though the Lord makes[c] his life an offering for sin,
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,


This would mean Jesus must have a child or children.  That is what (offspring) means.  Did Jesus have kids?

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